Does it mean that a person has the Holy Spirit if they have all the fruits of the spirit?

In this dispensation of grace, a person is not baptized WITH the Holy Spirit (Act.1:5) as what happened on the day of Pentecost in Acts 2. In this grace age, a person is baptized BY the Holy Spirit, (1Cor.12:13), thus sealing them into the Body of Christ the instant they are saved.

I mention this because the Holy Spirit does not come upon us to empower us like in Pentecost. Today, we are filled with Christ (Gal.2:20) by taking in (receiving into us) the written Word of God. The true spiritual ‘fruit-bearing’ capacity we have is in direct relationship to the capacity of the Word in us. In other words, the fruit of the Spirit is the outward manifestation of our obedience to the living Word of God working inside us. If a saved person does not have the Word of God within them, then they are not walking by the Spirit. In actual fact they cannot. Thus, the fruit they will produce is of the flesh, which is emotional, fickle and selfish.

If a saved person spends time in the Word, allowing it to take root in them, and allowing themselves to be influenced by the truth of the Word, they will come under the effectual working of the Word (1Thes.2:13) within them, which will produce the true selfless fruit of the Spirit as listed in Gal.5:22–23.

So, in summary, it's not the fact that a person ‘has the Holy Spirit’ that causes fruit to be produced. ‘Having the Holy Spirit’ is not an accurate expression according to the grace doctrine in Paul’s epistles. The fruit of the Spirit is the outworking of the living Word of God from within a person. It is the result of walking by the Spirit, which is a simple obedience to the written Word that has taken root inside a person.